10 sourced news briefs · 15 practice MCQs
This study edition contains original summaries of sources linked below. Updates described as proposals, plans or announcements are not presented as completed outcomes.
Practice MCQs ↓
International Relations and Science & Technology
1. India and European Union conclude Horizon Europe association negotiations
India and the European Union completed negotiations for India’s association with Horizon Europe, the EU’s flagship research and innovation programme. The conclusion creates the basis for Indian researchers, institutions and industry to join collaborative funding calls and European research consortia; it is a completed negotiation, while programme participation will follow the association arrangements.
Important exam facts
- Horizon Europe is the European Union’s flagship research and innovation programme.
- Indian participants are expected to gain access to collaborative calls, European consortia and advanced research infrastructure.
- Pillar II covers health; digital, industry and space; climate, energy and mobility; and food and the bioeconomy.
- Formal negotiations followed the India–EU Trade and Technology Council ministerial meeting held in Brussels on 15 July 2026.
Static GK connection: Revise India–EU relations, the India–EU Trade and Technology Council, research diplomacy and the institutional structure of European Union programmes.
Source: PIB, Ministry of Science & Technology — India-EU conclude negotiations to join Horizon Europe programme, 7 November 2026
Economy and Energy
2. PSU oil companies report all 893 tested E20 petrol samples compliant
The Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas reported that 893 E20 petrol samples collected from public-sector oil company depots and retail outlets across 27 States and Union Territories met the prescribed ethanol-content range. The statement responded to a Karnataka claim and proposed joint sampling and independent testing under the applicable standard rather than treating the disputed claim as settled.
Important exam facts
- The 893 samples comprised 330 from IOCL, 280 from BPCL and 283 from HPCL locations.
- Testing was conducted under IS 17021, Annex C, at refinery and oil-company quality-control laboratories.
- All tested samples were within the prescribed E20 ethanol range of 19% to 21%.
- All 56 samples tested in Karnataka were reported compliant, with ethanol content between 19% and 20%.
Static GK connection: Connect E20 with India’s ethanol-blending programme, fuel quality standards, oil marketing companies and the role of the Bureau of Indian Standards.
Source: PIB, Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas — E20 petrol quality testing, 7 November 2026
Health and Economy
3. NPPA announces revised anti-cancer medicine prices effective 9 November
The National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority said revised maximum retail prices following trade-margin rationalisation for non-scheduled anti-cancer medicines would take effect on 9 November 2026. The measure covers identified drugs and is expected to reduce consumer expenditure; the announced effective date means the price change was prospective on the edition date.
Important exam facts
- NPPA capped trade margins on the MRP of 137 anti-cancer drugs on expert recommendations.
- Seventy-six companies reported revised MRPs for 1,225 formulations covering 121 drugs.
- MRP reductions were reported for 1,031 formulations, and 600 brands showed reductions above 50%.
- The highest reported reduction was 96.45%, with estimated annual consumer savings of ₹3,502.31 crore.
- The maximum permissible trade margin remains 30%, subject to the applicable notification and price-control framework.
Static GK connection: Revise NPPA, the Drugs (Prices Control) Order 2013, scheduled and non-scheduled formulations, trade-margin rationalisation and pharmaceutical price regulation.
Source: PIB, Department of Pharmaceuticals — Revised prices of anti-cancer medicines, 7 November 2026
Defence and Security
4. Defence Minister outlines Second Tour of Duty opportunity for Agniveers
At Air Force Station Bagdogra, the Defence Minister stressed operational readiness, domain awareness, cyber resilience and information integrity against emerging threats. Referring to the Cabinet-approved Second Tour of Duty, he said Agniveers completing the two-year engagement would have an opportunity to seek enrolment as regular soldiers, subject to willingness and selection criteria.
Important exam facts
- The Second Tour of Duty was described as a two-year engagement opportunity for Agniveers.
- Regular enrolment after the engagement is not automatic; willingness and selection criteria apply.
- The security challenges identified included cyber-attacks, drone swarms, proxy warfare and information operations.
- Bagdogra was highlighted as strategically important for India’s eastern and North-Eastern security framework.
Static GK connection: Revise the Agnipath recruitment framework, civil–military policy, emerging warfare domains and the strategic geography of the Siliguri–Bagdogra region.
Source: PIB, Ministry of Defence — Operational readiness and Second Tour of Duty, 7 November 2026
Polity, Governance and Internal Security
5. Union Home Minister reviews Gujarat border, coastal and internal security
The Union Home Minister reviewed Gujarat’s law-and-order and internal-security situation in Ahmedabad. The meeting covered border and coastal surveillance, implementation of the new criminal laws, drug trafficking, cybercrime, terrorism, illegal migration and disaster management, with emphasis on coordination among central and state security agencies.
Important exam facts
- Gujarat has an international border with Pakistan and a coastline of about 2,340 kilometres.
- The review called for coordination among the BSF, State Police, Coast Guard and central agencies.
- Implementation of the new criminal laws was among the subjects reviewed.
- Drug trafficking, cybercrime, illegal migration and disaster management were also discussed.
Static GK connection: Connect the review with Union–State responsibilities for public order, coastal security, border management, the BSF and the Indian Coast Guard.
Source: PIB, Ministry of Home Affairs — Gujarat law-and-order and internal-security review, 7 November 2026
Science, Technology and Creative Economy
6. WaveX opens IFFI 2026 startup pavilion applications
The Ministry of Information and Broadcasting invited eligible startups in film and allied technologies to apply for the WaveX Startup Pavilion at WAVES Bazaar during IFFI Goa 2026. This is an application invitation, not a completed selection; eligible DPIIT-registered startups will be screened by a WaveX selection committee.
Important exam facts
- The opportunity is open to DPIIT-registered startups in film and related technology domains.
- WaveX is the WAVES Startup Accelerator under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting.
- Focus areas include animation, visual effects, gaming, comics, extended reality and media technologies.
- IFFI was established in 1952 and is held annually in Goa.
Static GK connection: Revise DPIIT startup recognition, India’s AVGC-XR sector, the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting and the International Film Festival of India.
Source: PIB, Ministry of Information & Broadcasting — WaveX startup pavilion at IFFI Goa 2026, 7 November 2026
Economy and Power Sector
7. NTPC reports group capacity above 91 GW and higher coal-station PLF
At NTPC Western Region-I’s 52nd Raising Day, officials reported that the NTPC Group’s installed capacity exceeded 91 GW. During the first half of FY 2026–27, NTPC’s coal-based stations recorded a plant load factor of 75.11%, compared with 68.35% for the rest of the country, providing a current snapshot of public-sector generation performance.
Important exam facts
- NTPC was established in 1975.
- The NTPC Group’s reported installed capacity was more than 91 GW.
- NTPC coal stations recorded a 75.11% plant load factor in the first half of FY 2026–27.
- Plant load factor indicates actual electricity generation relative to maximum possible generation over a period.
Static GK connection: Revise NTPC’s status as a central public-sector power producer, installed capacity, thermal generation and the meaning of plant load factor.
Source: PIB, Ministry of Power — NTPC 52nd Raising Day performance figures, 7 November 2026
Governance and Administrative Reforms
8. Steel Ministry completes Special Campaign 6 for pending matters
The Ministry of Steel reported completion of Special Campaign for Disposal of Pending Matters 6, conducted from 2 to 31 October 2026 with its central public-sector enterprises. The campaign addressed grievances, appeals, official references, record management and cleanliness as an administrative-efficiency exercise.
Important exam facts
- The Ministry reported achieving 100% of its public-grievance and appeal redressal targets.
- It reviewed 21,164 physical files and weeded out 17,107 files.
- The campaign conducted 301 cleanliness drives.
- About 17,501 square feet of office space was reported freed through disposal of scrap, e-waste and redundant files.
Static GK connection: Connect the campaign with CPGRAMS, record-management rules, grievance redressal, Swachhata initiatives and the role of central public-sector enterprises.
Source: PIB, Ministry of Steel — Special Campaign for Disposal of Pending Matters 6, 7 November 2026
Industry, Environment and Science & Technology
9. Chemicals backgrounder highlights plastic parks, CIPET and safety measures
A Government backgrounder outlined infrastructure, research, quality-control and safety measures supporting India’s chemicals and petrochemicals sector. It reported the Plastic Parks grant structure, CIPET’s training and technology network, mandatory quality-control orders and a five-year hazardous-chemical safety programme, distinguishing continuing schemes from newly completed outcomes.
Important exam facts
- Plastic Parks may receive a central grant of up to 50% of project cost, capped at ₹40 crore per project.
- CIPET’s network comprises 51 centres, including three dedicated to plastic-waste management.
- Thirty-seven chemical and petrochemical Quality Control Orders were in force as of August 2026.
- A five-year programme aims to cover all 2,393 Major Accident Hazardous units.
- Advanced chemicals, petrochemicals and material technologies became eligible under the ₹1 lakh crore RDI Scheme from 8 October 2026.
Static GK connection: Revise CIPET, industrial parks, BIS-linked Quality Control Orders, hazardous-chemical regulation, plastic-waste management and the Research, Development and Innovation Scheme.
Source: PIB Backgrounder — India’s Chemicals and Petrochemicals Sector, 7 November 2026
Economy and Public Administration
10. CBDT and CAG operationalise training cooperation through joint session
The National Academy of Direct Taxes Regional Campus, Mumbai, conducted a joint session for Indian Audit and Accounts Department officers and Income Tax Department personnel on 6 November, reported by PIB on 7 November. The programme implemented the September 2025 CBDT–CAG memorandum for training, academic cooperation, capacity building and research.
Important exam facts
- The session examined profits and gains of business or profession.
- It compared corresponding provisions of the Income-tax Act 1961 and Income-tax Act 2025.
- The September 2025 MoU links CBDT and the Comptroller and Auditor General’s office for capacity building.
- NADT is the principal training institution for the Indian Revenue Service in direct taxes.
Static GK connection: Revise CBDT under the Department of Revenue, the constitutional position of the CAG under Article 148 and institutional capacity building in financial administration.
Source: PIB, Ministry of Finance — NADT-RC operationalises CBDT–CAG MoU, 7 November 2026
Practice MCQs
1. Horizon Europe is the flagship research and innovation programme of which organisation?
- European Union
- Council of Europe
- OECD
- European Space Agency
Show answer and explanation
A. European Union — Horizon Europe is the European Union’s flagship framework for research and innovation cooperation and funding.
2. Which Horizon Europe pillar contains thematic clusters such as health, climate, energy, mobility and the bioeconomy?
- Pillar I
- Pillar II
- Pillar III
- Pillar IV
Show answer and explanation
B. Pillar II — The cited thematic clusters form Pillar II, which centres on global challenges and European industrial competitiveness.
3. Under IS 17021 testing cited for E20 petrol, what was the prescribed ethanol-content range?
- 10%–12%
- 14%–16%
- 19%–21%
- 26%–31%
Show answer and explanation
C. 19%–21% — All 893 tested samples were reported within the prescribed E20 range of 19% to 21% ethanol.
4. Which body announced the revised prices following trade-margin rationalisation of anti-cancer medicines?
- ICMR
- CDSCO
- NITI Aayog
- National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority
Show answer and explanation
D. National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority — NPPA, under the Department of Pharmaceuticals, administers pharmaceutical price-control measures including the cited rationalisation.
5. The revised anti-cancer medicine prices announced on 7 November 2026 were scheduled to take effect on which date?
- 8 November 2026
- 9 November 2026
- 15 November 2026
- 1 December 2026
Show answer and explanation
B. 9 November 2026 — The release clearly distinguished the announcement from implementation by setting 9 November 2026 as the effective date.
6. Regular enrolment after the Agniveer Second Tour of Duty is subject to which condition?
- Automatic absorption after two years
- Only completion of school education
- Willingness and satisfaction of selection criteria
- Approval by the State Government
Show answer and explanation
C. Willingness and satisfaction of selection criteria — The Defence Minister stated that willingness and meeting the prescribed selection criteria would govern regular enrolment.
7. Which force is primarily associated with guarding India’s international land borders, including the Gujarat–Pakistan border?
- Border Security Force
- Indian Coast Guard
- Central Industrial Security Force
- National Security Guard
Show answer and explanation
A. Border Security Force — The BSF guards designated international land borders, while the Coast Guard has maritime law-enforcement and coastal-security functions.
8. Eligibility for the WaveX Startup Pavilion at IFFI Goa 2026 was limited to startups registered with which body?
- SEBI
- DPIIT
- TRAI
- UGC
Show answer and explanation
B. DPIIT — The invitation specified DPIIT-registered startups working in film and allied technology domains.
9. WaveX primarily supports innovation in which broad sector?
- Mining and metallurgy
- Agricultural irrigation
- Media and entertainment
- Maritime logistics
Show answer and explanation
C. Media and entertainment — WaveX is a Ministry of Information and Broadcasting accelerator for media, entertainment and related emerging technologies.
10. What does plant load factor measure in the power sector?
- Fuel price per generating station
- Transmission loss between two substations
- Share of renewable energy in a State
- Actual generation relative to maximum possible generation over a period
Show answer and explanation
D. Actual generation relative to maximum possible generation over a period — PLF compares actual output with the electricity that could have been generated at continuous rated capacity during the period.
11. What plant load factor did NTPC’s coal-based stations report for the first half of FY 2026–27?
- 75.11%
- 68.35%
- 52.00%
- 91.00%
Show answer and explanation
A. 75.11% — NTPC reported 75.11%, compared with 68.35% for the rest of the country.
12. Special Campaign for Disposal of Pending Matters 6 is most directly associated with which governance objective?
- Electoral delimitation
- Administrative pendency reduction and record management
- Monetary policy transmission
- Inter-State river adjudication
Show answer and explanation
B. Administrative pendency reduction and record management — The campaign targets pending references and grievances, record review, cleanliness and efficient use of office space.
13. What is the maximum central grant ceiling per project under the Plastic Parks scheme cited in the backgrounder?
- ₹20 crore
- ₹25 crore
- ₹40 crore
- ₹100 crore
Show answer and explanation
C. ₹40 crore — Central support may reach 50% of project cost, subject to a ceiling of ₹40 crore for each Plastic Park project.
14. CIPET is primarily associated with which field?
- Petrochemicals engineering, plastics and allied technologies
- Oceanography and fisheries
- Civil aviation safety
- Classical language research
Show answer and explanation
A. Petrochemicals engineering, plastics and allied technologies — CIPET provides education, skills, research and technology support for petrochemicals, plastics and allied industries.
15. The constitutional office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India is established under which Article?
- Article 112
- Article 148
- Article 280
- Article 324
Show answer and explanation
B. Article 148 — Article 148 provides for the Comptroller and Auditor General of India, whose office partnered with CBDT for the cited training initiative.
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